It is only considered nakedness in regard to a married woman because her hair is normally covered. However the hair of an unmarried woman is normally uncovered and people are accustomed to seeing it, therefore it is not considered "nakedness"
Posts: 361 | Location: Chicago | Registered: June 20, 2004
This sounds all to confusing to me. your saying that women must cover their hair because it is considered "nakedness". however uncovered hair is only considered a nakedness on married women, becuase they ussually cover their hair. so must the hair of a married women be covered because it is a "nakedness" OR is the hair of married women a "nakedness" because it is ussually covered? im just not getting it?
Posts: 18 | Location: usa | Registered: October 22, 2004
Your second assumption was correct. Since married women are required by the Torah to keep their hair covered, that makes their hair considered "nakedness"
Posts: 361 | Location: Chicago | Registered: June 20, 2004
that makes their hair considered "nakedness"[/QUOTE]
"That" is referring to the Torah requirement. The assumption put forth by dr that the hair of a married woman must be covered because it is nakedness was said by Rabbi Kacev to be the wrong assumption.
Can it be said that intrinsically the hair of a (married) woman does not constitute nakedness were it not for the passuk from the Torah regarding Sotah?
Posts: 73 | Location: New Jersey | Registered: September 03, 2004
So if intrinsically the hair of a woman does not constitute nakedness, what would be the reason for the torah to require its covering? Why would hair be different from the face?
Posts: 73 | Location: New Jersey | Registered: September 03, 2004
if the assumtion of Rabbi Kacev is correct, ie. that a womens hair must be covered for reasons other than "nakedness", they why is the law of hair covering a modesty law, shouldent it be a law unto itself? ie. The torah requiered a women to cover her hair, just like the torah commanded us to keep kosher. what has hair covering got to do with "modesty". Also, i would humbly suggest that for a women to cover her hair would quite plainly fall under the catagoery of modesty!
Posts: 18 | Location: usa | Registered: October 22, 2004
quote:Originally posted by Rav Chaim: Of course not. if he doesn't believe in torah's law, how can you trust him for torah laws, it's not sacred to him
Even if a woman is shomeret shabbat, if she does not cover her hair, she can not be trusted for kashrus?
Posts: 73 | Location: New Jersey | Registered: September 03, 2004
As I mentioned before, the prohibition of a woman covering her hair is a Torah prohibition. However once women do go around with thier hair covered,it now also becomes a modesty issue for a married woman not to cover her hair.
Posts: 361 | Location: Chicago | Registered: June 20, 2004
To Mike: There is a difference why she doesn't cover her hair. If it's from ignorence, that's not a problem. Even if it's "too hard for her" this would be under the heading of being unobservant in one area can they be believed in a different area.See YD 119 for this in detail. But your question was that she doesn't "believe" in the Mitzvah. If she doesn't believe any Mitzvah, then she is an Apikores, thus can't be trusted for Kashrus.