Should one write G-d's name with an apostrophe? Why is it that some orthodox books write it out?

Do you mean with a hyphen?

Not everyone agrees that Hashem's Name written in any language other than Hebrew has any Kedusha [holiness] but out of respect for those that do we write the Name in English with a hyphen.

The problem that is perceived is that if that written Name is destroyed, it violates the prohibition of destroying Hashem's name. There is a whole separate debate as to whether this applies to what is shown on a computer screen, rather than on a printed out copy.

Your question is easily answered, though. As we are afraid people might throw away something with Hashem's Name written on it and as we have no such concern with an actual book (people don't usually throw away books, especially religious ones) then the Name may be printed in full in a book.

quote:

Do you mean with a hyphen?

Ooops. Yes.

Writing the name of God in other languages are known as "kinuyyim" (names by which God is reffered to). Therefore there is no distinction between writing it with a hyphen or not,they are both "kinuyyim".

quote:

Originally posted by Gila:
Should one write G-d's name with an apostrophe? Why is it that some orthodox books write it out?

Gila,

The reason this name is written with a hyphen is because of the sanctity that we give to any of the seven names and attributes of G-d, with their changing suffixes. Example: 1) Lo-rd (Ado-nai); 2) G-d (Elo-him); 3) Sha-dai, etc.

Some add "Eheyeh Asher Eheyeh" to one of G-d's attributes.

If we do not write these names with their hyphens, they would require special care, so as not to be effaced or erased, as it is written:
לא תעשו כן ליי' אלהיכם

"You shall not do so to the Lo-rd your G-d."

Meaning, the names of foreign gods that were found in Canaan, we are commanded to destroy from their places. Yet, respect and honour are to be given to G-d's divine name. For this very reason, old liturgical writings and books of Hebrew lore, when they have become old (Yiddish: "shammos"), are either buried or stored away in a "geniza."

David

quote:

Writing the name of God in other languages are known as "kinuyyim" (names by which God is reffered to). Therefore there is no distinction between writing it with a hyphen or not,they are both "kinuyyim".

So why do people write it with a hyphen?

B"H

See my previous post.

Thanks David. My question was in reply to Rabbi Kacev's post above.

quote:

Originally posted by Gila:


So why do people write it with a hyphen?

I guess they assume it will even remove its status as a "kinui" but it does not.

Actually, the Shach YD 179:11 writes that one may erase the name of Hashem written in a foreign language and it is not a kinui. The Mishna Berura, however, writes that even so one may not treat it disrespectfully. The Achiezer writes that if one puts a hyphen between the letters of Hashem's name then there is no concern even if it is treated without respect, and Ginzei HaKodesh quotes R' Elyashiv shlita as supporting this approach. Even the Avnei Nezer who writes that a dash doesn't help when Hashem's name is written in Hebrew, agrees that in a foreign language a hyphen removes the obligation for geniza.
This would be the reason why many write with a hyphen.
There may be some who disagree and require geniza in English even with a dash, but I found no sources for such a position.

This is simple logic. The name God has no intrisic kedusha--it is just a kinui-a word with which people refer to God. Therefore G-d is also A word with which people refer to God and there is no logical reason to differentiate between them.
One can check into the writings of Rav Moshe Feinstein,the Minchas Yitzchok, and the Tzfnos Poneach for further elaboration on this subject.

I can understand that a hyphen might still render the Name as a kinnui, as a hyphen merely jins up a word. But what about, say, an apostrophe or some other mark? The OU Center in Israel regularly send out e-mails with Tefillos that have Hashem's Name in Hebrew, but with an apostrophe somewhere in the Name, presumably so that it shouldn't be considered as proper Sheimos. An example can be found here:

Omer Counting Chart

quote:

Originally posted by Rabbi Y. Kacev:
This is simple logic. The name God has no intrisic kedusha--it is just a kinui-a word with which people refer to God. Therefore G-d is also A word with which people refer to God and there is no logical reason to differentiate between them.
One can check into the writings of Rav Moshe Feinstein,the Minchas Yitzchok, and the Tzfnos Poneach for further elaboration on this subject.

Rabbi Kacev, Shalom!

As you are most certainly aware, the Hebrew word, "Elo-him," (Translated as "G-d" in English) cannot be written out in Hebrew within a Scroll of the Torah, by any scribe, without his first dedicating the name he is about to write as holy. Therefore, "kedusha" does apply to the word, at least in Hebrew, just as it does to G-d's other attributes. Rabbi Meir HaCohen (Hachofetz Chaim) says that sanctity would apply to their equivalent in a foreign language.

There is a Midrash (Sifrei on Devorim 12:5) that explains why "sanctity" is ascribed even to G-d's attributes. The Rabbis had asked why is it that we find two verses in the Torah that seem to contradict each other? One verse (Shemos 20:24) says:

"...in all places wherein I mention my name, I will come unto you, and I will bless you."

Another verse (Devorim 12:5) says:

"...the place which the Lo-rd your G-d shall choose out of all your tribes to put His name there, even unto his dwelling place shall you seek."

They explained the apparent contradiction as follows:

The first verse refers to all of the places (i.e. towns, cities, villages, hamlets, etc.) wherein we mention only G-d's substitue name, such as: Ado-nai (Lo-rd); Elo-him (G-d); Qudsha Barich Hu (The Most Holy, blessed be He); Hashem (the Name); Rahmana (the Merciful One), etc.

The second verse refers only to the priests of Aaron's lineage who, when standing to bless the people on certain holidays, were permitted to pronounce the four-letter name, which is not permissible for us to describe in writing. Their pronunciation of G-d's most divine and holy name was done only in Jerusalem, and in the Temple precincts.

"In the temple precincts you say [his name] according to the way it is written, but in the city, according to its substitution." - Sifrei on Devorim 12:5

Even so, only seven names of G-d are singled out as having sanctity when writing them:
e.g.
י-ה-ו-ה

י-ה

א-להי צבאות
/
א-להיך/ א-להיכם/ א-להי/ א-להיו/ א-להים
א-ל/ א-לוה

ש-די

א-דוני

אהיה אשר אהיה

The letter hey and the apostrophe, obviously refers to the shem Hashem and it therefore is a kinnuy.

quote:

Rabbi Meir HaCohen (Hachofetz Chaim) says that sanctity would apply to their equivalent in a foreign language.

Shalom Avraham.
The Chofetz Chaim ststes quite clearly in thr Mishnah Berurah that God's name in a foriegn language has no inherent sanctity and is no more than a kinui.

quote:

Originally posted by Rabbi Y. Kacev:
This is simple logic. The name God has no intrisic kedusha--it is just a kinui-a word with which people refer to God. Therefore G-d is also A word with which people refer to God and there is no logical reason to differentiate between them.
One can check into the writings of Rav Moshe Feinstein,the Minchas Yitzchok, and the Tzfnos Poneach for further elaboration on this subject.

I find it shocking that you should argue with R Elyashiv, the Achiezer and Avnei Nezer based on "simple logic", without bringing any specific sources to back you up.
I looked through Igros Moshe and found no reference to G-d being a kinui. Could you please specify where to look in the "writings of Rav Moshe Feinstein,the Minchas Yitzchok, and the Tzfnos Poneach".

Actually it is pretty clear that Hashem's name in a foreign language is not a kinui, but rather a separate category by itself. See Mishna Berura 85:10 where he brings the Ra'avad who writes that "Rachum" may not be erased because it is a kinui, but no one argues on the Shach that a foreign language may be erased. Clearly it is in a separate category from kinui'im.

quote:

Originally posted by Rabbi Peretz Moncharsh

Actually it is pretty clear that Hashem's name in a foreign language is not a kinui, but rather a separate category by itself. See Mishna Berura 85:10 where he brings the Ra'avad who writes that "Rachum" may not be erased because it is a kinui, but no one argues on the Shach that a foreign language may be erased. Clearly it is in a separate category from kinui'im.

I am afraid it is far from "CLEAR",for the TASHBATZ for one states quite clearly that the name of GOD in another language is a kinnuy.

quote:

I find it shocking that you should argue with R Elyashiv, the Achiezer and Avnei Nezer based on "simple logic", without bringing any specific sources to back you up.

It is easy to toss out names. However if this is to be a intellectual Torah discussion, you should be able to refute my logic,which you have yet to do.

You are assuming that the term "kinui" refers to any word that people use to refer to Hashem. All your "logic" is based on this assumption. However, I am quoting these sources to prove that your assumption is groundless.
Furthermore, I think that once it is demonstrated that the Gedolim of current and previous generations disagreed with your "logic" it is unnecessary to refute it.

quote:

Originally posted by Rabbi Peretz Moncharsh:
You are assuming that the term "kinui" refers to any word that people use to refer to Hashem. All your "logic" is based on this assumption. However, I am quoting these sources to prove that your assumption is groundless.
Furthermore, I think that once it is demonstrated that the Gedolim of current and previous generations disagreed with your "logic" it is unnecessary to refute it.

There was nothing in your quotes that indicated in any way that this definition of kinui is incorrect.

Quoting psakim without understanding them is not really meaningful.
Secondly your inability to refute my logic,may indicate your psakim were taken out of context or misunderstood.