Go to Our New Site
Weekly Torah Updates

Home    Forums  Hop To Forum Categories  Torah Forums  Hop To Forums  Beis Medrash    The First Jew

Read-Only Read-Only Topic
Go
New
Find
Notify
Tools
-star Rating Rate It!  Login/Join 

Picture of Menachem
Posted
This is pretty wierd thinking.Who was the first jew?
We can basically say it was Avraham Avinu because he was the first to accept all the commandments and learn Torah and have a circumcision(Adam was born circumcised)
I asked someone this question and he said that Adam and Noach and their families all had jewish characteristics but they werent really jewish because if Adam was jewsih then how could there be Non-Jews
So if Avraham Avinu was the first Jew - how could he marry Sarah if she wasnt jewish - or was she - Thanks
 
Posts: 56 | Location: new york | Registered: March 20, 2005Report This Post

Posted Hide Post
Shalom Menachem,

You have to ask yourself, "What makes a Jew?" Answer, anyone obligated under God's covenant to the Jewish people.

How does Avraham fit into this? Look at Bereishis (Genesis) 15:18 and it becomes pretty evident - "The Lord made a covenant with Avram, saying, To your seed I have given this land (Israel)..."

Now we look at Bereishis 17:2 - "And I will establish My covenant between Me and you and your seed after you."

The complete details of this covenant would not be given until Sinai, so Avraham wasn't under the full Torah mandate yet. This brings us to the second part of your question: Sara.

We don't yet have the halachic conversion requirements, but we do have a sort of conversion, in that Sara had become like Avraham, and shared Avraham's beliefs and desires.

Now let's notice something. Avraham had children through more than one wife, yet only Sara's child was Jewish. Judaism passes through the mother.

Looking at this differently. Yitzchak and Rivka had Yaacov and Esav. Yaacov's wives accepted the "Jewish" way but Esav's wives did not. The Jewish Nation was born through Yaacov's wives, but not through Esav's wives.

Things to think about, Eliahu
 
Posts: 32 | Location: Canada | Registered: June 27, 2005Report This Post
GY Teacher

Picture of Rav Chaim
Posted Hide Post
The Prushas D'rachim (if I remember correctly) says it's a Machlokes Rishonim if it started by Avraham or Sinai. (The RAmban says its from Avrohom.) One of the proofs is the Sugya in Kiddushin that asks how do we know there is inheritance by non jews. First the Gemarah wanted to bring a proof from Eisuv that he had HAr Seiur as an inheritance to his children. The GEmarah rejects it since Eisuv was a heretical Jew.

This leads to the question, then, when did they become not Jewish?

I wanted to compare this to the Gemarah in Kesuvos about a Ger Katan. Its considered a Ger until he's Bar Mitzvah and then has a chance to reneg. How does this work?

In Dibros Moshe (i Think) wants to explain this that there are 3 ways to become a Ger, Milah, Tvilah, and accepting the Mitzvah. If one of the three doesn' apply to you, then it's not M'akev (you can become a Jew without it.) So if someone is missing a certain limb that you can't preform Milah, we Paskin that he doesn't need a Milah.

So to by a minor. Since he cannot accept Mitzvos, so the accepting of the Mitzvos isn't M'akev. So he's a jew by just Milah and T'vilah. When he reaches 13 and has the ability to accept Mitzvos, all of a sudden there is a gap of his conversion and needs to have an accepting of Mitzvos. So if he rejects the Mitzvos then, he's left with only Milah and Tvilah and not Kabbolas Mitzvos, so the conversion isn't a conversion.

So to by Eisuv. Before Matan Torah, the only requirement to be a Jew is to be a child of Avrohom. WHen Matan Torah came around, a new requirement was needed, the acceptance of the Torah (and from there we learn the requirements of all other Geirus, as it says in Yevomos.) Klal Yosrael accepted the Torah, so they continued being Jews. Edom didn't, so at that point they stopped being Jews.


____________

http://limudtorah.jewishweb.org

Please help the Global Yeshiva to continue spreading high quality Torah by sponsoring a Shiur
in the "Understanding Mishna Brurah" forum. All sponsorships are tax deductible.
 
Posts: 1819 | Location: Michigan | Registered: June 25, 2004Report This Post

Posted Hide Post
Good Shabbos Rav Chaim,

I have a question for you on the ger katan. How does he affirm his being Jewish at age 13 (12 for a girl)? I have heard two views on this.

1) He must make an affirmation.

or 2) If he is silent and does not repudiate his Jewishness at that time.

Todah, Eliahu
 
Posts: 32 | Location: Canada | Registered: June 27, 2005Report This Post

Picture of Menachem
Posted Hide Post
Thanks
But didnt Avrohom know the whole Torah and all the requirements already before Sinai?
 
Posts: 56 | Location: new york | Registered: March 20, 2005Report This Post

Posted Hide Post
Shalom Menachem,

It is arguable how much Avraham knew as a navi. Neviim did not know everything. God reseserved the 6th of Sivan at Sinai, in front of the entire Jewish world, as the day the Torah, in all its glory, in all its detail, would become incumbent upon every Jew.

Until that time, it was still Noachide law which prevailed. The patriarchs certainly followed most of Torah law, but there are things that happened along the way where Noachide law was the applicable law, and not Torah law.

Everything would solidify under Torah law at Sinai.

Good Shabbos, Eliahu
 
Posts: 32 | Location: Canada | Registered: June 27, 2005Report This Post

Posted Hide Post
That question can throw up many more questions, simply because we do not have a definition or have lost teh definition of jewish and torah - pre sinai.

Regarding the dictionary
Te word jew or yehudi really doesn't apply pre sinai
extract from
http://www.jewfaq.org/whoisjew.htm
"Originally, the term Yehudi referred specifically to members of the tribe of Judah, as distinguished from the other tribes of Israel. However, after the death of King Solomon, the nation of Israel was split into two kingdoms: the kingdom of Judah and the kingdom of Israel (I Kings 12; II Chronicles 10). After that time, the word Yehudi could properly be used to describe anyone from the kingdom of Judah, which included the tribes of Judah, Benjamin and Levi, as well as scattered settlements from other tribes. The most obvious biblical example of this usage is in Esther 2:5, where Mordecai is referred to as both a Yehudi and a member of the tribe of Benjamin"

and
http://www.beingjewish.com/identity/whoisajew.html
Let's look at the next generation. Why was Jacob Jewish, when Esau was not? They both had the same mother, and the same father! The reason is because Jacob served Hashem, and Esau did not, and thus Hashem chose Jacob, but did not choose Esau.

The site also says-
It is the same with Yishmael (same erason why yishmael wasn't jewish). THe reason he is not jewish is not because his mother was not jewish. It was because he didn't serve G-d.

This corroborates what I once heard. That yishmael was a a sort of apostate jew. THough I wouldn't use teh word 'jew'/yehudi pre sinai, as it didn't exist then.

The word Torah is v. general even today. I have no idea if it applied then or how it applied.

Infact, when we say moshe received the torah on sinai. that is only the 613 commandments+explanations. Te written torah was recevied in the wilderness.

We can look at what they kept though, and see the opinions. But whether you call them jewish or what they kept torah, is another matter.

Let's look at Avraham kept everything or not. rather than whether he knew everything or not- sionce nobody can know everything.
Also. What Avraham knew was at least partly or a graet amount of it, was by tradition.

There is debate as to whether avraham kept the whole torah up to mezuzah. Or whether it was jstu the 7 noachide laws + shabbat.

Note that Avraham circumcised het males of his household becuase he was commanded to circumcised them. Not because of any Torah he knew through Shem and Ever.


What he knew - or at leat a great part of it -
was passed down by tradition from Adam. There was a Yeshiva of Shem and Ever.

A site says
http://www.yhol.org.il/features/avraham_walk.htm
"R. Yehuda Halevi in the Kuzari says that each generation had a special possessor of the tradition ('segula'). Adam passed it along to Shet, to Enosh and eventually to Noah. Then the tradition went through Shem to Ever and from him to Avraham, bypassing his father Terach. That Avraham continued the tradition of his grandfather Ever is the reason he was called 'ivri' or follower of Ever"


Perhaps, jewishness then - as now - is about mission. So, perhaps Avraham's jewishness is because G-d established the covenant with him. -

Otherwise Adam would be as jewish as Avraham.

Our dictionary doesn't apply well to that time.
if in that time, keeping torah alone makes one jewish, and avraham received torah by a tradition starting with Adam, then assuming adam kept it, Adam was jewish.



There's a Q though, of why Avraham had to discover HaShem through reasoning (it's only based a midrash though afaik)


And, Avraham and Isaac were before Israel. Jacob/Israel is the first member of israel. the literal father of the children of israel. So, to associate all jews are chidlren of israel or more generally, as Israel. we are excluding Avraham and Isaac and their wives - and jacob's wife! Why does HaShem call us Bnai Yisrael? Perhaps becasue if he had called us Bnai Avraham, then teh nations would claim our heritage.

Mostly dictionary issues. There aren't many questions as to what they kept. Just around 2 different traditions as far as I know.
One that they kept 7 laws + shabbat. Theo ther that they kept all torah up to teh mezxuzah. Adn they recieved this by tradition.
 
Posts: 57 | Location: london | Registered: May 25, 2005Report This Post
GY Teacher

Picture of Rav Chaim
Posted Hide Post
quote:
I have a question for you on the ger katan. How does he affirm his being Jewish at age 13 (12 for a girl)? I have heard two views on this.

1) He must make an affirmation.

or 2) If he is silent and does not repudiate his Jewishness at that time.

If I remember correctly, it's a Machlokes rishonim. Tosfos holds he must affirm or act like a Jew to take affect. (SInce a Naarah SHanenus by a Geyores katan is a Machlokes if she gets the K'nas. Tosfos reasons that there must be a case of a Gedolah that the decision is still there.) But I think there is Rishonim that argue. I don't know what we hold L'maasah.


____________

http://limudtorah.jewishweb.org

Please help the Global Yeshiva to continue spreading high quality Torah by sponsoring a Shiur
in the "Understanding Mishna Brurah" forum. All sponsorships are tax deductible.
 
Posts: 1819 | Location: Michigan | Registered: June 25, 2004Report This Post

Picture of ilanavraham
Posted Hide Post
This is really a non important issue overall. Avraham was a Chaldee or Ivri if you want, from Ur Chasdim. Aside from what we can learn from him as a brave soul treading into a world full of Idolatry and a devoted husband and father and of course a faithfull servant of Hashem, everything else is specualtion. Aggada. And it matters not one hairsbreadth as far as the Torah itself is concerened.



quote:
Originally posted by davidt:
That question can throw up many more questions, simply because we do not have a definition or have lost teh definition of jewish and torah - pre sinai.

Regarding the dictionary
Te word jew or yehudi really doesn't apply pre sinai
extract from
http://www.jewfaq.org/whoisjew.htm
"Originally, the term Yehudi referred specifically to members of the tribe of Judah, as distinguished from the other tribes of Israel. However, after the death of King Solomon, the nation of Israel was split into two kingdoms: the kingdom of Judah and the kingdom of Israel (I Kings 12; II Chronicles 10). After that time, the word Yehudi could properly be used to describe anyone from the kingdom of Judah, which included the tribes of Judah, Benjamin and Levi, as well as scattered settlements from other tribes. The most obvious biblical example of this usage is in Esther 2:5, where Mordecai is referred to as both a Yehudi and a member of the tribe of Benjamin"

and
http://www.beingjewish.com/identity/whoisajew.html
Let's look at the next generation. Why was Jacob Jewish, when Esau was not? They both had the same mother, and the same father! The reason is because Jacob served Hashem, and Esau did not, and thus Hashem chose Jacob, but did not choose Esau.

The site also says-
It is the same with Yishmael (same erason why yishmael wasn't jewish). THe reason he is not jewish is not because his mother was not jewish. It was because he didn't serve G-d.

This corroborates what I once heard. That yishmael was a a sort of apostate jew. THough I wouldn't use teh word 'jew'/yehudi pre sinai, as it didn't exist then.

The word Torah is v. general even today. I have no idea if it applied then or how it applied.

Infact, when we say moshe received the torah on sinai. that is only the 613 commandments+explanations. Te written torah was recevied in the wilderness.

We can look at what they kept though, and see the opinions. But whether you call them jewish or what they kept torah, is another matter.

Let's look at Avraham kept everything or not. rather than whether he knew everything or not- sionce nobody can know everything.
Also. What Avraham knew was at least partly or a graet amount of it, was by tradition.

There is debate as to whether avraham kept the whole torah up to mezuzah. Or whether it was jstu the 7 noachide laws + shabbat.

Note that Avraham circumcised het males of his household becuase he was commanded to circumcised them. Not because of any Torah he knew through Shem and Ever.


What he knew - or at leat a great part of it -
was passed down by tradition from Adam. There was a Yeshiva of Shem and Ever.

A site says
http://www.yhol.org.il/features/avraham_walk.htm
"R. Yehuda Halevi in the Kuzari says that each generation had a special possessor of the tradition ('segula'). Adam passed it along to Shet, to Enosh and eventually to Noah. Then the tradition went through Shem to Ever and from him to Avraham, bypassing his father Terach. That Avraham continued the tradition of his grandfather Ever is the reason he was called 'ivri' or follower of Ever"


Perhaps, jewishness then - as now - is about mission. So, perhaps Avraham's jewishness is because G-d established the covenant with him. -

Otherwise Adam would be as jewish as Avraham.

Our dictionary doesn't apply well to that time.
if in that time, keeping torah alone makes one jewish, and avraham received torah by a tradition starting with Adam, then assuming adam kept it, Adam was jewish.



There's a Q though, of why Avraham had to discover HaShem through reasoning (it's only based a midrash though afaik)


And, Avraham and Isaac were before Israel. Jacob/Israel is the first member of israel. the literal father of the children of israel. So, to associate all jews are chidlren of israel or more generally, as Israel. we are excluding Avraham and Isaac and their wives - and jacob's wife! Why does HaShem call us Bnai Yisrael? Perhaps becasue if he had called us Bnai Avraham, then teh nations would claim our heritage.

Mostly dictionary issues. There aren't many questions as to what they kept. Just around 2 different traditions as far as I know.
One that they kept 7 laws + shabbat. Theo ther that they kept all torah up to teh mezxuzah. Adn they recieved this by tradition.
 
Posts: 44 | Location: USA | Registered: January 09, 2005Report This Post
 Previous Topic | Next Topic powered by eve community  

Read-Only Read-Only Topic

Home    Forums  Hop To Forum Categories  Torah Forums  Hop To Forums  Beis Medrash    The First Jew


Weekly Torah Updates
Enter your Email


Preview