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What is the halachic status of a male jew married to a non jewish woman? who is knowledgeable in halacha not someone who is eneducated.

This message has been edited. Last edited by: danielb,
 
Posts: 6 | Location: israel | Registered: August 18, 2004Report This Post
My statusDirector

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The source in the Torah that a Jew may not marry a Gentile is Deuteronomy 7:3 as it states:3: Neither shalt thou make marriages with them: thy daughter thou shalt not give unto his son,nor his daughter shalt thou take unto thy son. 4: For he will turn away thy son from following Me, that they may serve other g-ds; so will the anger of the Lord be kindled against you, and He will destroy thee quickly. Translation by Feldheim Publishers

The source in the Talmud is in Avodah Zarah 36b.

The Rambam in the laws of forbidden relationships 12:1 states that the law is that the man receives lashes from the Torah.

Here is what the Sefer HaChinuch says:

At the root of the precept lies the reason that most of the mass people are drawn by way of foolishness after the counsel of wives; and if a man will marry a daughter of [a people under]
foreign god, she will lure him to idol-worship; moreover, she will also raise her sons by him to idol-worship; and woe to him who thus ruins his progeny.

Among the laws of the precept, there is what the Sages of blessed memory said: (Sanhedrin 81b) If one is conjugally intimate with an Aramite (non-Jewish) woman publicly, i.e. in the sight of ten Israelites or more, zealots may attack him. Proof of the matter is the incident of Phinehas and Zimri (Numbers 25:6-8, 14). However, a zealot has no right to attack him except during the act of immorality - as in incident that happened: for it is stated, "and the woman through her belly". If he separated [from her] though, he may not be killed, but is to be brought to the beth din (court), where he is given whiplashes, because he committed the deed in public. If zealots did not attack him and the beth din did not flog him, we know through the Tradition that he will be punished by kareth [Divine severance of existence] for it is written, and he has been as a husband with the daughter of a foreign god: the Lord will cut off [impose kareth] for the man who does this (Malachi 2:11-12).

This message has been edited. Last edited by: Rabbi Mitterhoff,


If not now, when?
 
Posts: 2176 | Location: Jerusalem, Israel | Registered: December 04, 2003Report This Post

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thank you for the reply.
I was also wondering as to what this persons status is? in regard to minyan, zimun,...
 
Posts: 6 | Location: israel | Registered: August 18, 2004Report This Post

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Ones status in the jewish community does not change if you are married to a non-jew. When Jews lived in communities which had courts, the court might order you to divorce the non-jew or be excluded from the community. Then you would not be able to be called to the Torah and be part of a minyan until the situation is rectified.
If you are Cohen married to a convert or divorcee, then, if you ask, the Rabbi may request that you not becalled to the torah as a cohen so people will not think your children are cohanim. I would think that it also would apply to someone married to a non-jew, so that people shouldn't think your children are jewish.

Aryeh Shore
 
Posts: 548 | Location: Rechovot, Israel | Registered: February 11, 2005Report This Post
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